I am reading a novel the copy of which was bought and published in the US, but the novel was written and copyrighted by a British author and first published in the UK.*
Apart from the apparent changes in orthography (candour->candor), a couple of lines in the book left me wondering how heavy the editing process actually was. On reflection, it may have been nil, but it did plant the doubt.
My question is whether there is a typical, default approach to the situation (another publishing house, but without translation into another language), and, consequently, a rule of thumb for me of what to expect when meeting such a text.
I will add that this is just a point of curiosity. I have no reason to expect one edition to be "better" or "more original" than another.
* The book is John Le Carré, The Night Manager, copyrighted in 1993 by David Cornwell, published by Ballantine Books, imprint of Random House (originally published in the US in 1993).